- #1
Arjan82
- 474
- 429
- TL;DR Summary
- There's a Youtube video claiming ##1^x=2## has solutions ##x= \frac{-i \ln(2)}{2\pi n}## with ##n \in \mathbb{Z}## and ##n \neq 0##. Is this solid?
The Youtuber 'Blackpenredpen' claims that ##1^x=2## has solutions ##x= \frac{-i \ln(2)}{2\pi n}## with ##n \in \mathbb{Z}## and ##n \neq 0##. Somone else in a forum claims that because ##1^x## is not injective there are more solution branches and this solution mixes these branches somehow. Who is right?
Also, 'Blackpenredpen' does not show that ##1^{ \frac{-i \ln(2)}{2\pi n}}## is indeed equal to 2. He kind of waved it away with 'something something infinite amount of solutions but one of them is 2'. Is this correct?
Also, 'Blackpenredpen' does not show that ##1^{ \frac{-i \ln(2)}{2\pi n}}## is indeed equal to 2. He kind of waved it away with 'something something infinite amount of solutions but one of them is 2'. Is this correct?