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I have completed a formal proof of D&K Theorem 6.2.8 Part (ii) ... but I am unsure of whether the proof is correct ... so I would be most grateful if someone could check the proof and point out any errors or shortcomings ...
Theorem 6.2.8 reads as follows:
Attempted Proof of Theorem 6.2.8 Part (ii)
We have to show:
\(\displaystyle f \leq g \Longrightarrow I(f) \leq I(g) \)
where
\(\displaystyle I(f) = \int_{ \mathbb{R^n} } f(x) dx = \int_{B} f(x) dx \)
and
\(\displaystyle I(g) = \int_{ \mathbb{R^n} } g(x) dx = \int_{B} g(x) dx \)
Proof:
Given a partition \(\displaystyle \mathscr{B} \text{ of } B \) we have
\(\displaystyle \overline{S} (f, \mathscr{B} ) \ = \ \sum_{j \in J} \ \sup_{ x \in B_j} \ f(x) dx \text{ vol}_n (B_j) \)
and
\(\displaystyle \overline{S} (g, \mathscr{B} ) \ = \ \sum_{j \in J} \ \sup_{ x \in B_j} \ g(x) dx \text{ vol}_n (B_j) \)Now, since \(\displaystyle f(x) \leq g(x) \ \ for all x \in B \) we have
\(\displaystyle \overline{S} (f, \mathscr{B} ) \ \leq \ \ \overline{S} (g, \mathscr{B} ) \)it follows that:
\(\displaystyle \overline{ \int_{B} } f(x) dx = \text{ inf} \ \{ \overline{S} (f, \mathscr{B} ) \ \ | \ \ \mathscr{B} \text{ is a partition of } B \} \ \ \leq \ \ \text{ inf} \ \{ \overline{S} (g, \mathscr{B} ) \ \ | \ \ \mathscr{B} \text{ is a partition of } B \} \ = \ \overline{ \int_{B} } g(x) dx \) ... ... ... ... ... (1)Similarly ... ... \(\displaystyle \underline{ \int_{B} } f(x) dx \leq \underline{ \int_{B} } g(x) dx \) ... ... ... ... ... (2)(1), (2) \(\displaystyle \Longrightarrow \int_{B} f(x) dx \leq \int_{B} g(x) dx \) ... ...
... ... that is ... ...
\(\displaystyle I(f) \leq I(g) \)
Could someone please check my proof for correctness ... and point out any errors, shortcomings and areas needing improvement ...
Peter
NOTE:
It may help readers of the above post to have access to D&K Section 6.2 so as to be able to check the way the authors present the theory and also to check notation so I am providing a scan of section 6.2 as it reads before Theorem 6.2.8 ... see below
Hope that helps ...
Peter
Theorem 6.2.8 reads as follows:
Attempted Proof of Theorem 6.2.8 Part (ii)
We have to show:
\(\displaystyle f \leq g \Longrightarrow I(f) \leq I(g) \)
where
\(\displaystyle I(f) = \int_{ \mathbb{R^n} } f(x) dx = \int_{B} f(x) dx \)
and
\(\displaystyle I(g) = \int_{ \mathbb{R^n} } g(x) dx = \int_{B} g(x) dx \)
Proof:
Given a partition \(\displaystyle \mathscr{B} \text{ of } B \) we have
\(\displaystyle \overline{S} (f, \mathscr{B} ) \ = \ \sum_{j \in J} \ \sup_{ x \in B_j} \ f(x) dx \text{ vol}_n (B_j) \)
and
\(\displaystyle \overline{S} (g, \mathscr{B} ) \ = \ \sum_{j \in J} \ \sup_{ x \in B_j} \ g(x) dx \text{ vol}_n (B_j) \)Now, since \(\displaystyle f(x) \leq g(x) \ \ for all x \in B \) we have
\(\displaystyle \overline{S} (f, \mathscr{B} ) \ \leq \ \ \overline{S} (g, \mathscr{B} ) \)it follows that:
\(\displaystyle \overline{ \int_{B} } f(x) dx = \text{ inf} \ \{ \overline{S} (f, \mathscr{B} ) \ \ | \ \ \mathscr{B} \text{ is a partition of } B \} \ \ \leq \ \ \text{ inf} \ \{ \overline{S} (g, \mathscr{B} ) \ \ | \ \ \mathscr{B} \text{ is a partition of } B \} \ = \ \overline{ \int_{B} } g(x) dx \) ... ... ... ... ... (1)Similarly ... ... \(\displaystyle \underline{ \int_{B} } f(x) dx \leq \underline{ \int_{B} } g(x) dx \) ... ... ... ... ... (2)(1), (2) \(\displaystyle \Longrightarrow \int_{B} f(x) dx \leq \int_{B} g(x) dx \) ... ...
... ... that is ... ...
\(\displaystyle I(f) \leq I(g) \)
Could someone please check my proof for correctness ... and point out any errors, shortcomings and areas needing improvement ...
Peter
NOTE:
It may help readers of the above post to have access to D&K Section 6.2 so as to be able to check the way the authors present the theory and also to check notation so I am providing a scan of section 6.2 as it reads before Theorem 6.2.8 ... see below
Hope that helps ...
Peter
Last edited: