- #1
Albert01
- 12
- 0
Hello,
I have a question that I would like to ask here.
Let ##L = \left\{ x \in \mathbb{Z}^m : Ax = 0 \text{ mod } p \right\}##, where ##A \in \mathbb{Z}_p^{n \times m}##, ##rank(A) = n##, ## m \geq n## and ##Ax = 0## has ##p^{m-n}## solutions, why is then ##|L/p\mathbb{Z}^m| = p^{m-n}##?
I am extremely looking forward to your responses!
I have a question that I would like to ask here.
Let ##L = \left\{ x \in \mathbb{Z}^m : Ax = 0 \text{ mod } p \right\}##, where ##A \in \mathbb{Z}_p^{n \times m}##, ##rank(A) = n##, ## m \geq n## and ##Ax = 0## has ##p^{m-n}## solutions, why is then ##|L/p\mathbb{Z}^m| = p^{m-n}##?
I am extremely looking forward to your responses!
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