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cianfa72
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- Frobenius theorem for differential one forms - equivalence of conditions
Hi, starting from this old PF thread I've some doubts about the Frobenius condition for a differential 1-form ##\omega##, namely that ##d\omega = \omega \wedge \alpha## is actually equivalent to the existence of smooth maps ##f## and ##g## such that ##\omega = fdg##.
I found this About Frobenius's theorem for differential forms where the OP asks for an "algebraic" proof of the equivalence ##d\omega = \omega \wedge \alpha \Leftrightarrow\omega = f dg##. The implication ##\Leftarrow## is algebraically clear, just take ##\alpha = - df/f##.
The other implication ##\Rightarrow## seems to be, instead, not algebraically straightforward (the fourth comment there shows a counterexample regarding the fact that the OP's proposal algebraic proof does not work).
Is basically this latter implication the actual content of Frobenius's theorem ? Thanks.
I found this About Frobenius's theorem for differential forms where the OP asks for an "algebraic" proof of the equivalence ##d\omega = \omega \wedge \alpha \Leftrightarrow\omega = f dg##. The implication ##\Leftarrow## is algebraically clear, just take ##\alpha = - df/f##.
The other implication ##\Rightarrow## seems to be, instead, not algebraically straightforward (the fourth comment there shows a counterexample regarding the fact that the OP's proposal algebraic proof does not work).
Is basically this latter implication the actual content of Frobenius's theorem ? Thanks.
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